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by BlastRoom
Review Earth history, Earth's interior, the Solar System, space technology, biodiversity, and ecosystem conservation.
#matatag_science_9
40 questions
One question set, multiple game modes. Tap any game to see it in action. Not sure which to pick?
Answer to place stones and capture territory.
Outrun the snow together.
Earn blasts, then hunt the other team.
Answer to earn energy, then climb.
The class blasts through walls together.
Bid on mystery lots. Most money wins.
Sell tours. Nice, standard, or a total scam.
Answer, restock, and serve the rush.
More correct answers pulls the rope your way.
Answer, then shoot down the alien wave.
Answer, then tap to leap the frozen ridge.
A geologist reports that one rock layer formed before another, without giving ages in years. Which method is being used?
The illustrated layers have not been overturned or disturbed. Which layer formed first?
What can be concluded about feature E and layer C in this section?
Which formed first: the rock fragments enclosed in layer B, or layer B itself?
Which type of boundary is marked E?
A closed sample retains 25% of its original radioactive parent isotope after 5,000 years. What is the isotope's half-life?
Which subdivision contains the others in the geologic time hierarchy?
During which period did the event marked A occur?
Which period belongs in the empty cell?
Which body waves usually reach a seismic station first after an earthquake?
Shear waves do not travel through Earth's outer core. Which state of matter does this evidence support?
What makes up Earth's tectonic plates?
Which of Earth's layers occupies the greatest fraction of its volume?
A drawing uses 1 cm for every 100 km. How thick should a 2,200 km layer appear?
Which panel represents Copernicus's model?
Which process supplies the Sun's energy?
According to the nebular hypothesis, why do planetary orbits lie near a common plane?
Which group consists entirely of terrestrial planets?
Why is Pluto classified differently from the eight planets?
Which name identifies part B?
What is the object marked C called at this stage?
Why do many meteor showers recur around the same dates each year?
Why do astronomers place some optical telescopes in space?
Which use of Diwata satellites can support farmers in Nueva Ecija?
Which condition makes the ISS useful for studying processes difficult to observe in an ordinary Earth laboratory?
Four surveys each record 100 organisms. Which result has the greatest species richness?
Differences in inherited traits among members of one species represent which type of biodiversity?
Arrows point from food to eater. Which statement about mice is supported by this food web?
Bee populations decline on a Palawan farm growing bee-pollinated crops. With other growing conditions unchanged, which effect is most directly expected?
What does the IUCN Red List classify species by?
Which IUCN category indicates greater extinction risk than Vulnerable but lower risk than Critically Endangered?
Why should a Data Deficient species not automatically be considered safe?
Which habitat feature should a conservation team prioritize when protecting a wild Philippine eagle nesting area?
In a coastal food chain, small fish eat plankton, and large fish eat small fish. Heavy fishing removes large fish. With other conditions unchanged, what initial change is most likely?
Dense mats of water hyacinth cover a Laguna lake. How can they affect plants growing underwater?
How is water salinity classified in an ecosystem?
Which description fits an estuary in the Philippines?
Which example is a biotic interaction in a Philippine wetland?
What is a likely result of clearing trees on a steep hillside before heavy rains?
A class plans to reduce litter beside a barangay stream. Which measure most directly shows whether the plan worked?
Crack the passcode before the zombies get in.
Answer, then swat bugs for bonus points.
Race through questions at your own speed.
Same question on every screen. Fastest wins.
Pick a tile, answer, hit bonuses and steals.
Genes, Chromosomes and Protein Synthesis
20 questions
